SECTION - I

Number of Questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 3: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

1.   The body politic, as well as the human body, begins to die from its birth, and bears in itself the causes of its own destruction. But both may have a constitution more or less robust, and fitted to preserve them a longer or shorter time. The constitution of a man is the work of nature, that of the state is the work of art. ____________

(1)  The legislative power is the heart of the state; the executive power is its brain, giving movement to all the parts.

(2)  A man remains an imbecile and lives, but as soon as the heart ceases its functions, the animal dies.

(3)  It does not rest with men to prolong their lives; nor with the state to aspire to more than a practicable constitution.

(4)  In every well-constituted state the laws far from being weakened, are forever acquiring fresh vigour.

(5)  If we wish to form a durable constitution, we must not dream of making it eternal.

2.   The emerging political system in Russia is not yet a dictatorship, but nor is it democracy in anything but formal terms. Opposition parties can exist - but only within certain bounds. Elections are held - but their results are a foregone conclusion. The power holders are chosen in Kremlin corridors long before the polls open. ____________

(1)  In many ways the problem is not the growing power of the Russian state, but the chronic weakness of a civil society.

(2)  The most successful oligarchs are shadowy figures in the presidential entourage and political connections are the fastest way to become rich.

(3)  And all the country's senior politicians are multimillionaires, their money safely stashed abroad for them by Kremlin-favoured businessmen.

(4)  There is only a very small number of human rights associations, to counteract the power of the state.

(5)  There is no real political debate in the public media and no broader culture of democracy to foster diversity of opinion.

3.   Like tenure, the sabbatical is a defining element of academic life that is almost unheard of in the corporate world. Although the sabbatical's features vary among institutions, most involve six to twelve months' leave from teaching and administrative duties - every seven years. The break from academics is intended to help scientists to reflect and recharge. ____________

(1)  A sabbatical can be used to discuss one's career, identify goals and prioritise one's work.

(2)  However, without careful planning the opportunity can easily be wasted.

(3)  A sabbatical can be used to increase the depth of one's knowledge or learn a new technique.

(4)  However, a sabbatical is also a chance to do something outside the normal academic year routine.

(5)  It could also be used to write a book and take on a new project.

DIRECTIONS for questions 4 to 13: Read the following passages carefully and choose the best answers for the questions that follow them.

PASSAGE - I

T o confront a mind that radically alters our perception of the world is one of life's most unsettling yet liberating experiences. Unsettling because it can undercut carefully constructed rationales, liberating because at last the obvious is seen for what it is. However troubling reality may be, human dignity is not affirmed in fleeing it. Rather, dignity lies in seeing reality for what it is - and acting responsibly in the face of it. In all American history, no one's writings are more unsettling than Noam Chomsky's. He is among our greatest dissenters. No intellectual tradition quite captures his voice; thinking within traditions is anathema to him. No party claims him; he is a spokesman for no ideology. His position is not a liberalism become radical, or a conservatism in revolt against the betrayal of claimed principles. It is an indication of the radical nature of his dissent that it fits nowhere.

Such a radical stance is hard to sustain. Even our most famous dissenters have often turned back from what they saw. Their insights became too painful. Many lapsed into despair, lamenting as did Mark Twain the follies of human nature, or as did Henry Adams the failure of the American promise. But Chomsky does not turn back. He relentlessly pursues what he sees. No one has exposed more forcefully the self-righteous beliefs on which America's imperial role is based, or delineated more effectively the appalling actions which maintain it. No one has focused more compellingly on the violence of our world, or conveyed more directly the responsibility of the United States for much of it. Few have so carefully dissected how America's acclaimed freedoms mask its irresponsible power and unjustified privilege.

Chomsky's insights, though forbidding in their intensity, bring that sense of relief that comes when someone speaks the truth directly. That relief was palpable among Chomsky's readers in the 1960s and 1970s when the war raged in Vietnam. Bluntly, unsparingly, he marshalled the evidence and described the brutal realities of the war - American aggression, genocide, war crimes, mass murder. He showed us how these realities were carefully homogenized and sanitized on the evening news to make them acceptable to the powers that be. And he asked why this was so. His answer is shocking at first: there is a pervasive, omnipresent ideological process of indoctrination that permeates American life, makes us immune to the suffering all around us, and blinds us to what is all too obvious. In these writings, Chomsky explores logically and methodically how the process works. As he looks at its workings in Vietnam, Central America, and the Middle East, he makes us confront the way in which the very foundations of American civilization and its economic life are at war with the prospects for human dignity and freedom - here and abroad.

His tenacity is extraordinary. It is there in the skilfully crafted logical character of his writings, the careful gathering of evidence, the undiminished ardour over the years to expose the mystifications so continually used to conceal the truth. It is there as well in his outpouring of writings for even the smallest journals, in his determination through countless speaking engagements to reach any audience willing to listen. In the early days of the antiwar movement, Chomsky willingly came and spoke with just a handful of people, with students in all disciplines - from physics to Asian studies - urging them to use their minds and not just their bodies to oppose the war; to not have illusions about America's aggression in Vietnam, or the long-term character of the struggle to end it; to not seek easy alternative faiths in other countries: not in Castro's Cuba, or Ho Chi Minh's Vietnam, or Mao's China.

Today Chomsky draws large audiences of college students never exposed to his writings about Vietnam. But his impact is comparable: his direct portrayal of U.S. policy around the world communicates a sense that people can see if they care to, if they step back just long enough to question the ideological milieu which shapes them. Now as then, his is not the counsel of despair. True, Chomsky does not believe that the truth by itself will simply win out, given the realities of power he describes. But he refuses to turn from analyzing the reasons for the evils and horrors of our time, for they are neither unknowable nor intractable. They are all too understandable. Otherwise so many efforts would not be undertaken to deflect such realities, much as the psyche deflects painful truths deeply known within, but for that reason consciously denied all the more fervently as irrelevant.

4.   The analogy of the mind is drawn to show that

(1)  certain unpalatable truths are best left alone.

(2)  truth has little chance to win in the confrontation with the evil and horrors of our time.

(3)  there is no point in analyzing the motives behind evil deeds.

(4)  the shortcomings in the American system can and must be confronted, if they are to be dealt with.

(5)  American people are so thoroughly indoctrinated that there is little hope for the country.

5.   Chomsky's analysis of America's role in wars overseas showed that

(1)  State actions and ideologies contradict the core values of the American society.

(2)  war news is �homogenized and sanitized' to spare the American people the pains of reality.

(3)  the powers that be want to hide behind euphemisms and ideologies.

(4)  people feel relieved when someone else utters the truths that they have not the courage to utter.

(5)  in the face of heavy odds, the country still stands for the ideologies formulated at its inception.

6.   Chomsky is distinct from the other American writers in that

(1)  he revealed the ugly face of America behind the freedom mask.

(2)  even as he brings to light shocking truths about his country, he does not succumb to pessimism.

(3)  his radicalism is tinged by remorse.

(4)  he believed America used its powers irresponsibly and enjoyed its privileges guiltlessly.

(5)  he was not shocked by the ugly realities on which he focused.

7.    All of the following are true, as per the passage, EXCEPT:

(1)  Chomsky's writings change our view of reality.

(2)  We are disturbed when our traditionally accepted reasoning is challenged.

(3)  Chomsky is not untouched by the ideology and traditions of his time.

(4)  To see reality for what it is, is a liberating experience.

(5)  To be able to see reality and respond to it sensibly enhances human dignity.

8.    Which of the following is the author's view of Chomsky?

(1)  He willingly subscribes to the alternatives proposed by other countries to the ills of America.

(2)  He believes the pen is mightier than the sword in the battle against the government.

(3)  He seeks to influence formative minds against wars of aggression.

(4)  He abhors wars, even one in defence of ideologies.

(5)  He is persistent in bearing down on the deficiencies in the American system.

PASSAGE - II

I f all is in truth Sachchidananda, then death, suffering, evil, limitation can only be the creations, positive in practical effect, negative in essence, of a distorting consciousness which has fallen from the total and unifying knowledge of itself into some error of division and partial experience. This is the fall of man typified in the poetic parable of the Hebrew Genesis. That fall is his deviation from the full and pure acceptance of God and himself, or rather of God in himself, into a dividing consciousness which brings with it all the train of the dualities, life and death, good and evil, joy and pain, completeness and want, the fruit of a divided being. This is the fruit which Adam and Eve, Purusha and Prakriti, the soul tempted by Nature, have eaten. The redemption comes by the recovery of the universal in the individual and of the spiritual term in the physical consciousness. Then alone the soul in Nature can be allowed to partake of the fruit of the tree of life and be as the Divine and live for ever. For only then can the purpose of its descent into material consciousness be accomplished, when the knowledge of good and evil, joy and suffering, life and death has been accomplished through the recovery by the human soul of a higher knowledge which reconciles and identifies these opposites in the universal and transforms their divisions into the image of the divine Unity.

To Sachchidananda extended in all things in widest commonality and impartial universality, death, suffering, evil and limitation can only be at the most reverse terms, shadow-forms of their luminous opposites. As these things are felt by us, they are notes of discord. They formulate separation where there should be a unity, miscomprehension where there should be an understanding, an attempt to arrive at independent harmonies where there should be a self-adaptation to the orchestral whole. All totality, even if it be only in one scheme of the universal vibrations, even if it be only a totality of the physical consciousness without possession of all that is in movement beyond and behind, must be to that extent a reversion to harmony and a reconciliation of jarring opposites. On the other hand, to Sachchidananda transcendent of the forms of the universe the dual terms themselves, even so understood, can no longer be justly applicable. Transcendence transfigures; it does not reconcile, but rather transmutes opposites into something surpassing them that effaces their oppositions.

At first, however, we must strive to relate the individual again to the harmony of the totality. There it is necessary for us, - otherwise there is no issue from the problem, - to realize that the terms in which our present consciousness renders the values of the universe, though practically justified for the purposes of human experience and progress, are not the sole terms in which it is possible to render them and may not be the complete, the right, the ultimate formulas. Just as there may be sense-organs or formations of sense-capacity which see the physical world differently and it may well be better, because more completely, than our sense-organs and sense-capacity, so there may be other mental and supermental envisagings of the universe which surpass our own. States of consciousness there are in which Death is only a change in immortal Life, pain a violent backwash of the waters of universal delight, limitation a turning of the Infinite upon itself, evil a circling of the good around its own perfection; and this not in abstract conception only, but in actual vision and in constant and substantial experience. To arrive at such states of consciousness may, for the individual, be one of the most important and indispensable steps of his progress towards self-perfection.

Certainly, the practical values given us by our senses and by the dualistic sense-mind must hold good in their field and be accepted as the standard for ordinary life-experience until a larger harmony is ready into which they can enter and transform themselves without losing hold of the realities which they represent. To enlarge the sense-faculties without the knowledge that would give the old sense-values their right interpretation from the new standpoint might lead to serious disorders and incapacities, might render us unfit for practical life and for the orderly and disciplined use of the reason. Equally, an enlargement of our mental consciousness out of the experience of the egoistic dualities into an unregulated unity with some form of total consciousness might easily bring about a confusion and incapacity for the active life of humanity in the established order to the world's relativities. This, no doubt, is the root of the injunction imposed in the Gita, on the man who has  knowledge, not to disturb the life-basis and thought-basis of the ignorant; for, impelled by his example but unable to comprehend the principle of his actions, they would lose their own system of values without arriving at a higher foundation.

9.   �This is the fall of man typified in the poetic parable of the Hebrew Genesis.' The author says that the fall was caused by

(1)  the forbidden fruit - the apple which tempted Adam and Eve.

(2)  the tree of life - the fruit of which the soul of man can partake of to live forever.

(3)  the lack of a higher knowledge which transmutes the opposites into a universal image.

(4)  the shadow forms of separation instead of the orchestral whole.

(5)  the jarring opposites that cover the underlying harmony.  

10. The author compares the varied perceptions we may have of the physical world through our senses, with the possibility of

      (1)  the varied states of consciousness.

      (2)  awareness of the universe, far more acute than what we now have.

      (3)  the practical values given by our senses.

      (4)  the ordinary life experiences of the soul.

(5)  the enlargement of mental consciousness.

11. The author believes that attaining higher truth, would lead to correct interpretation of the old sense values and thereby

(1)  help us to understand its validity so long as we are in a certain set up.

(2)  is the price paid for the entry into a wider existence.

(3)  is the reinterpretation of a totally new order.

(4)  to a life of method and reason.

(5)  prods us to assign right values to the perception of the senses.

12. So long as the soul is deluded it experiences sorrow; enlightenment melts sorrow away. This concept is supported by all the following EXCEPT

(1)  Sorrow signifies only a partial experience of the soul.

      (2)  Sorrow is the fruit of a divided being.

(3)  The redemption of sorrow comes by the discovery of the universal.

(4)  Sorrow formulates a misconception of the unity.

(5)  Sorrow adapts itself to the orchestral whole.

13. The Gita cautions the enlightened mind to leave the ignorant as they are because

(1)  for them, the motions of life are based on a false misconception and a false stand point.

(2)  for them, the new conception has not yet become the centre of a reasoned and ordered higher knowledge.

(3)  for them, the inversion and perversion of truth is irrelevant to a certain stage of life.

(4)  for them, the egoistic life is necessarily bound to its present egoistic valuation.

(5)  for them, the law of wider existence may be represented in a new order of truths.

DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 17: Each question has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following:

-     Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an �F').

-     Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an �I').

-     Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a �J').

Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.

14. 1.   While they maybe defiers of convention, pushing the edge as they slice through walls of
      water, surfers are traditionalists by nature.

2.   For more than 40 years, quality has been Gordon Clark's middle name with 9 out of 10 wave riders relying on his surfboards.

3.   Last December when the old man slammed shut the doors of Clark Foam, in Laguna Niguel, California, he unleashed a tsunami; but Clark's departure may turn out to be the best thing to happen to the sport.

4.   Companies like California's Firewire Surfboards and France's Solomon have caught the attention of high-ranking pros by bringing innovative materials and construction methods to surfboards, some that had already worked wonders for skis, snowboards and the wings of Boeing Dream liners.

      (1)  JIJF                  (2)  FFJF                 (3)  JJJJ                        (4)  FFFF                (5)  FFJJ

15. 1.   Squalid living conditions in Lebanon's refugee camps are partly to blame for the rise of the
      Islamic extremist group Fatah al-Islam, says Lebanon's former ambassador to the United
      Nations.

2.   Residents of Beirut would have been at their wits' end all of last week, forced to stay indoors as street battles raged between Lebanese forces and Palestinian refugees.

3.   Khalil Makkawi, who now works to try to improve the conditions in these camps, said the poor living conditions have supplied Fatah al-Islam with a constant source of recruitment and support among Palestinians in Lebanon.

      4.   �The situation speaks for itself,� Makkawi told CNN's Brent Sadler in a recent interview.

      (1)  FFFI                 (2)  JIFF                 (3)  JFFF                 (4)  FIFF                 (5)  JJFF

16. 1.   New technology harnessing wave energy could be the �holy grail� for providing electricity
      and drinking water to Australia's major cities.

2.   The technology, developed with the help of more than (A) $ 770 million in seed funding from the government, works through fields of submerged buoys tethered to seabed pumps.

3.   The buoys move in harmony with the motion of the passing waves, pumping pressurised seawater to shore to run turbines and pass through a desalination plant.

4.   �The constancy of the waves even when the surface is dead calm means that you can build a base load renewable energy power station and that is really the holy grail for us, if you can produce renewable energy 24/7�, Industry Minister, Ian Macfarlane, said on Thursday.

      (1)  JIIF                        (2)  FIJF                 (3)  JFFF                 (4)  IFFF                 (5)  JFJJ

17. 1.   The most successful people are those who have a passion for something they do well, a
      passion that is not rationally proportionate to the objective importance of their job.

2.   They get their success not just because they seek success in the abstract, but because their relentless desire to do better inevitably makes them rise in the regard of their professional peers.

3.   A few business people may be the shallow wealth-seekers of myth, but even most entrepreneurs care more than just about money.

4.   Asking if these people are the happiest, most well-adjusted members of our society is redundant, because it presupposes that nothing is ever more important than the comfort of being content and well balanced.

      (1)  IIII                   (2)  JJIJ                        (3)  JIJJ                        (4)  FFFF                (5)  JJJJ

DIRECTIONS for questions 18 to 22: Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answers for the questions that follow it.

PASSAGE - III

M an must realize that he does not own nature; he is only one of its many offsprings. Nature is not due to man; man is due to nature. Man, supposedly the wisest animal on earth, should play the role of trustee of the enormous natural wealth and live in harmony with nature rather than conquer it. There has to be paradigm shift from economic development to human development. Environmental crisis is due to adoption of western model of development, environmental laws and education and change in the mental attitude of exploitation are needed to protect the environment. If human beings do not like the direction in which the world is heading, they should critically examine their individual and collective behaviour and governmental policies and programmes to determine if they should be changed so that they continue to march towards a more �desired future�.

The main arguments of both the environmentalists and the establishment lobbies revolve around economic issues. The dispute essentially centres on the accuracy of cost and benefit measurements. Nobody questions the basic man-nature relationship and the right of man to exploit nature which is taken for granted. This is because both the planners and the environmentalists have the same mind set which views man as a consumer and nature as a commodity. This mind is not only commercial but also ruthlessly cruel and ultimately harms the whole mankind. If the environmentalists wish to make any significant progress in conservation, they must fight on ethical and spiritual and not on economic grounds. Exploiting nature ruthlessly amounts to genocide and hence is a crime. Every living components of nature has right to dignified existence. Man, being the most evolved, should be the custodian and protector of the dignity of all.

We are privileged to live through one of the greatest scientific and technological revolutions in
human history. We are also saddled with the ominous responsibility of warding off the disastrous consequences of the new forces, which this revolution has unleashed. Socially undermining and process-oriented, the impact of forces cutting across the entire realm of human activity and relationship is making changes in ways which even experts cannot comprehend, let alone the common man.

The basic tenet of the scientific method enunciated by Francis Bacon in the early seventeenth century focused on carrying out experiments that would unravel linkage between the phenomenon to arrive at general laws of nature in order to control it and endow new powers to humankind. This approach led to the belief that matter is the sole ultimate reality and life is purely a chance occurrence caused by fortuitous combination of atoms. The scientific method and the materialistic philosophy of life, when adopted by social scientists like Locke, Smith and Bentham, generated the belief that the sole purpose of life is to maximize material pleasure and human welfare that can be ensured through a limitless pursuit of material prosperity, aided by the creation of more and more sophisticated artifacts. This technology, the progeny of science, came to be hailed as the great benefactor who would liberate human kind from poverty, destitution and exploitation and usher in an era of peace and abundance in society.

What, however, has become evident over the decades is that although modern technology has contributed to increased productivity, lower costs, and much else, it has simultaneously brought humankind to the brink of disaster through environmental pollution, resource depletion, and nuclear, biological and chemical weapon systems accompanied by more effective delivery systems, manipulation of genetic codes, and the rest. Having got us in a fix, technology has no control over the weapons dumps and agents, not even on ballistic rocketry, which are now within the reach of petty and power-hungry politicians, mindless terrorists, fanatics and even mad adventurers. There is no technology which can protect us from the mass destruction that even a careless slip or an error of judgment can cause. A case like Bhopal tragedy limited but unprecedented, thus becomes a forerunner of the ultimate disaster and sinks into the collective consciousness of the helpless citizen of the world.

A technological culture does not limit itself to the machine. It generates any number of standardized means to achieve predetermined ends.

18. The Bhopal tragedy has been quoted in the passage to

(1)  show the enormity of the destructive power of technology.

(2)  indicate that the final outcome of technology can only be calamitous.

(3)  conclude that technology cannot be ignored since mishaps are few and far between.

(4)  caution us to treat it as an ominous portent.

(5)  disprove the theory that science and technology are for the good of mankind.

19. Which of the following theories can be seen as contradicting the scientific method enunciated by Francis Bacon?

(1)  The theory of evolution of Darwin propounding natural selection.

(2)  The theory of Karma which postulates that our experiences in this life is due to our actions in previous lives.

(3)  The theory that science is the negation of religion.

(4)  Theory of utilitarianism which declares that the greatest good is what gives maximum happiness to maximum number of people.

(5)  Theory of transcendentalism which advances the doctrine that knowledge is obtained through enlightenment.

20. The author's objection to the approach by present environmentalists stems from the contention that they

(1)  have not risen above materialism to achieve their ends.

(2)  are no less consumeristic than the establishment.

(3)  lobby for the welfare of other living beings without suggesting suitable alternatives to meet human needs.

(4)  champion the cause of environment with an eye on monetary gains.

(5)  do not have a proper understanding of the basic man-nature relationship.

21. The author may not be in agreement with which of the following statements?

(1)  The western model of development is economy related.

(2)  Man is the most evolved of all living beings.

(3)  Science and technology has failed to end human sufferings.

(4)  One should consider oneself lucky to live in this technological age.

(5)  Environmentalists must fight the establishment with their own weapons.

22. From the passage, we can infer that �a desired future' as envisaged by the author is one in which

(1)  environmentalists fight the establishment lobbies on ethical and spiritual grounds.

(2)  people oppose Government policies and programmes on environment.

(3)  people realize that rights and duties are two sides of the same coin.

(4)  cost and benefit arising from any developmental projects are commensurate.

(5)  there is a paradigm shift from economic development to human development.

DIRECTIONS for questions 23 to 25: In each question, there are five sentences. The sentence labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate option.

23. (A)Despite their breath taking size, gentle behaviour and exceptional intelligence, whales can
      remain vague in the public    imagination because of their isolated habitat.

(B)It is deeply distressing that many whales have perished in ship strikes in recent years.

(C)This heart-warming Thoreauvian response reflects a realization among people everywhere that humanity must protect flora and fauna from unsustainable pressures through binding conventions and treaties.

(D)Yet the stranding of a juvenile female whale in the Thames led to an outpouring of affection and conservation-minded concern.

(E)Identifying safe, whale protecting lanes for    ocean-going vessels should be a priority area of the International Whaling Commission

      (1)  BDCE              (2)  DCEB              (3)  EBDC              (4)  BECD              (5)  DCBE

24. (A)Orissa is rapidly losing its forest cover and unregulated polluting industries and rampant
      mining are poisoning the state's air and water.

(B)According to a Forest Survey of India Report, the decline of dense forest cover in Orissa is one of the fastest in the country.

(C)They apprehend that most part of the state would be affected if the government does not call for environmental impact studies to    quantify the risks and take steps to control the damage.

(D)The government's push for massive industrialization without environmental impact assessment studies has become a cause for concern among environmentalists.

      (E)The state has already lost 472 square kilometers of forest in two years.

      (1)  DCBE              (2)  BDCE              (3)  EBDC              (4)  BEDC              (5)  DBEC

25. (A)You may have the most feature-filled cell phone money can buy, but how many of those
      fancy features are you able to use?

      (B)Affordability, availability and ease of services restrict the functions of a cell phone.

(C)Mobile service providers are unveiling a series of financial and product innovations to make sure that you make the most of your      handset.

(D)How much you get out of your mobile phone depends not only on how loaded your handset is, but also on the quality and variety of the service provided.

      (E)Slowly, but steadily, these limitations are getting removed.

      (1)  BDEC              (2)  CDBE              (3)  BDCE              (4)  DBEC              (5)  CEDB

SECTION - II

Number of Questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The International cricket council (ICC) wanted to include all the sixteen teams associated with it in both the upcoming World Cup and Champions Cup tournaments. Hence, ICC devised the following formats for the tournaments:

World Cup: This tournament is conducted in four stages. In the first stage, all the sixteen teams that take part in the tournament are divided into two groups of eight teams each. Each team in each group plays with every other team in that group exactly once. For any team, two points are awarded for a win and zero points for a loss. The top three teams in each group, in terms of the total number of points they scored in the first stage, advance to the second stage, also called the super six stage. In the super six stage, each team carries forward (from the first stage) only those points that it scored in the matches against the other teams which advanced along with it from the same group. In the super six stage, each of the three teams that advanced from a group play exactly once against each of the three teams which advanced from the other group. The points in this stage are awarded as in the first stage, and the top four of these six teams, in terms of the total number of points scored (i.e., points scored in the super six stage plus the points carried forward from the first stage), irrespective of their group, advance to the third stage, i.e., the semi-finals, and the winners of the semi-finals advance to the fourth stage, i.e., the finals.

Champions Cup: This tournament is to be conducted in three stages. In the first stage, all the sixteen teams that take part in the tournament are divided into four groups of four teams each. Each team in each group plays with every other team in that group exactly once. For any team, two points are awarded for a win and zero points for a loss. The top team in each group, in terms of the total number of points, advances to the second stage, i.e., the semi-finals. The winners of the semi-finals advance to the third stage, i.e., the finals.

Further, in both the tournaments,

i)    the rules of the tournament are designed such that no match ends in a draw or a tie.

ii)   if more than one team ends up with the same number of points at any stage of the tournament, the team with the best net run rate is placed the highest, the team with the next best net run rate, the second highest, and so on.

iii)   The draw of matches in the semi-finals is done randomly.

iv)  The winner of the finals is said to be the winner of the tournament and the loser of the finals is said to be the runner-up of the tournament.

26. If in the World Cup Tournament, the number of matches which India won is not more than half of that which it lost, which of the following is the best stage/position at which India finished the tournament?

(1)  Winner                                           (2)  Runner-up                                       (3)  Third stage 

(4)  Second stage                                   (5)  First stage

27. What is the difference between the total number of matches in the two tournaments?

(1)  45                                                   (2)  43                                                   (3)  41

(4)  38                                                   (5)  None of these

28. If in the World Cup Tournament, Pakistan was the winner, while South Africa was eliminated in the first stage, then the difference between the number of matches won by Pakistan and South Africa in the tournament, is at least

(1)  0                      (2)  1                      (3)  2                      (4)  3                      (5)  4

29. If in the World Cup Tournament, Australia was eliminated in the super six stage, then at most what percentage of the matches that Australia played in the tournament did Australia win?

(1)  80%                                               (2)  70%                                               (3)  60%

(4)  50%                                               (5)  None of these

30. Which of the following cannot happen?

      (1)  In the Champions Cup Tournament, at least 12 teams win at least one match each.

      (2)  In the World Cup Tournament, three of the semi-finalists are from the same group.

(3)  In the Champions Cup Tournament, the runner-up wins the same number of matches as the winner.

      (4)  In the World Cup Tournament, four of the teams finish the tournament without a win.

(5)  In the World Cup Tournament, one of the teams eliminated in the second stage has more number of wins than any other team in the tournament.

DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 35: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The nutritionist at a football academy was provided with five energy drinks - P, Q, R, S and T - which can be mixed in any proportion to suit the needs of the players. The following table gives the break up of the ingredients present in each of the five drinks.

31. If a player has to be prescribed a drink containing at least 25% carbohydrates and at least
25% proteins, by mixing exactly two of the five drinks in equal proportions, in how many ways can these two drinks be selected?

(1)  2                      (2)  3                      (3)  4                      (4)  5                      (5)  6

32. If not more than two litres of any of P, Q, R, S or T is available and six litres of a drink containing fats, proteins and carbohydrates in equal proportions is to be prepared for the players, then what is the maximum percentage of carbohydrates that such a drink can contain?

(1)  22.5%                                             (2)  25%                                               (3)  26.0%

(4)  30%                                               (5)  None of these

33. If an ideal drink is one which contains all the four ingredients in equal proportions, and exactly three of the given five drinks have to be mixed in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2 to get the ideal drink, then which of the following combinations of drinks can be used (not necessarily mixing the drinks in their order of appearance)?

(1)  P, Q and R        (2)  P, Q and S        (3)  Q, R and S        (4)  Q, R and T        (5)  Q, S and T

Additional information for questions 34 and 35:

The prices (in Rs) per litre of P, Q, R, S and T are 200, 240, 230, 220 and 215 respectively.

34. What is the least cost (in Rs.) per litre of a mixture of more than one drink, given that it contains at least 25% fats and at least 25% proteins?

(1)  205                   (2)  206.67              (3)  210                   (4)  213.33              (5)  215

35. What is the least cost (in Rs.) per litre of a mixture of more than one drink, given that it contains at least 25% minerals and at most 25% carbohydrates?

      (1)  215                   (2)  220                   (3)  227                   (4)  230                   (5)  235

DIRECTIONS for questions 36 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mr. Drucker, a corporate trainer, conducts workshops on �Business Etiquette' at different corporates, located in different cities. At the start of every month, from among all the proposals that he receives from different corporates, he selects some of them considering, in each case, the remuneration offered, the relevant travelling expenses and accommodation expenses (wherever applicable). His travelling expenses depend on the distance (in km) of the respective corporate from his home, and are Rs.10 per km.

The remuneration offered to him for his workshops varies from weekdays (i.e., Monday to Friday) to weekends (i.e., Saturday and Sunday). The following table gives, for a particular month, the list of corporates from which he got proposals, the respective distances of each of these corporates from his home, the details of the remuneration offered and the relevant accommodation expenses (incurred only if required).

The �remunerations offered� given in the above table are applicable only for the first workshop of the calendar month that he conducts at the respective corporate. If he conducts more than one workshop at any corporate within the same calendar month, the remuneration offered to him for each additional workshop will be 10% less than that offered for the first workshop. Mr. Drucker does not conduct more than one workshop per day. Further, he never conducts workshops on two consecutive days, with the only exception being when both the days are weekend days, in which case, he can conduct workshops either at the same corporate or at different corporates. Unless, Mr. Drucker is scheduled to conduct two workshops, on consecutive days, at the same corporate, he always return home on the same day after his workshop.

The details of the expenses involved are as follows:

(1)  If Mr. Drucker is scheduled to conduct one workshop at any corporate, the relevant expenses incurred by him are only his travelling expenses for the to and fro journey and no accommodation expenses are applicable.

(2)  If he is scheduled to conduct two workshops, on consecutive days, at the same corporate, he decides between the option of staying at the same place, thereby incurring the relevant accommodation expenses, and the option of travelling back to his home at the end of the first day and returning on the next day, thereby incurring additional travel expenses. If he selects the first option, the total expenses involved for the two workshops would be his travelling expenses for a to and fro journey and accommodation expenses for one day. If he selects the second option, the total expenses involved would simply be twice his travelling expenses for a to and fro journey.
Mr. Drucker always selects the cheaper of these two options.

      For any workshop (or a pair of workshops) �Net remuneration� = Total remuneration offered - Total expenses incurred.

      Assume that at any corporate, Mr. Drucker can conduct at most two workshops, scheduled as per his choice. Also, in all the questions that follow, the term week refers to a seven day period from Monday to Sunday.

36. What is the maximum net remuneration that Mr. Drucker could earn in a week?

(1)  Rs.26,700                                        (2)  Rs.27,700                                        (3)  Rs.28,920

(4)  Rs.28,900                                        (5)  None of these

37. If Mr. Drucker decides to schedule workshops only on those days on which he can earn a net remuneration of Rs.7000 per day, then the number of days on which he can conduct workshops during a period of four weeks, is at most

(1)  6                      (2)  7                      (3)  8                      (4)  9                      (5)  10

38. How many such corporates are there in Mr. Drucker's list, such that, if two workshops are conducted on consecutive days at the same corporate, the option of travelling home after the first workshop and then returning to the corporate for the second workshop, is less expensive when compared to the option of staying at the same place?

(1)  3                      (2)  4                      (3)  5                      (4)  6                      (5)  7

39. The total net remuneration that Mr. Drucker can earn by conducting exactly one workshop at each of the corporates during a period of three weeks, is at most

(1)  Rs.51,570                                        (2)  Rs.54,600                                        (3)  Rs.56,800

(4)  Rs.61,500                                        (5)  Rs.57,800

40. If Mr. Drucker has to definitely conduct workshops at A and D in a certain week, then the total net remuneration that he can earn in that week, is at most

(1)  Rs.25,240                                        (2)  Rs.24,620                                        (3)  Rs.25,020

(4)  Rs.27,020                                        (5)  Rs.29,220

DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 45: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Five students - Albert, Bala, Calvin, Deepak and Govind - attend six exams, one in each of the six subjects - English, Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Biology and Hindi. The maximum marks in each of these subjects are 100 and in every subject, the marks scored by each of the students is an integer.
The following bar graph gives the subject wise break-up (in percentage terms) of the total marks scored by each student.

            (in percentages)

The values shown in the above graph are cumulative values. Hence, for example, Albert scored 14%
(i.e., 24 - 10) of his total marks in Physics and 22% (i.e., 46 - 24) of his total marks in Chemistry.

41. The total marks scored by any of the five students are at most

(1)  500                   (2)  520                   (3)  550                   (4)  580                   (5)  600

42. The total marks scored by Calvin in the exam are at most

(1)  480                                                 (2)  500                                                 (3)  540

(4)  550                                                 (5)  None of these

43. If among the five students, Govind scored the highest marks in Maths, then his total score in all the six subjects put together is more than that of at least how many of the other four students?     

(1)  0                      (2)  1                      (3)  2                      (4)  3                      (5)  4

44. If among the five students, Albert scored the highest total score of 450, then what can be the highest marks scored by any student in Physics?

(1)  63                     (2)  68                     (3)  70                     (4)  72                     (5)  80

45. If the minimum marks required to pass a subject are 20 and all the five students passed in each of the subjects, then the total marks scored by any of the five students are at least

(1)  125                   (2)  150                   (3)  175                   (4)  200                   (5)  250

DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Two friends, P and Q, play a game on their new game board, which is made up of 64 squares, arranged in eight rows and eight columns. The rows are called ranks and are numbered from 1 to 8, from bottom to top, such that the bottom most row is rank 1 and the top most row, rank 8. The columns are called files and are numbered from 1 to 8, from left to right, such that the left most column is file 1 and the right most column, file 8.

At the start of the game, there are a total of five pawns - A, B, C, D and E - positioned on the board in squares chosen at random. Any player, in his turn, should move each of the five pawns by exactly one square only, in either the horizontal direction (i.e., along the same rank) or in the vertical direction (i.e., along the same file). The Horizontal Distance (H.D) between any two pawns is the difference between the numbers of their files and Vertical Distance (V.D) between any two pawns is the difference between the numbers of their ranks. For example, if we consider two pawns, one in the top most and left most square and the other in the bottom most and right most square, both the H.D and V.D between these two pawns is 7.

In the game, P took the first turn and moved all the five pawns and then Q, in his turn, moved all the five pawns again. The following table gives the changes in the H.D's and the V.D's between some of the pairs of pawns after P's move as well as Q's move.

In the above table, for example, the H.D between A and B increased by 2 (i.e., +2) (when compared to that at start of the game) due to P's move and from there, decreased by 1 (i.e., -1) (when compared to that at the end of P's move) due to Q's move.

It is also known that, at the start of the game, i.e., before P's move,

(i)   A is in rank 8 and D is in file 8.

(ii)  no two pawns are in either the same file or the same rank.

For any two pawns, X and Y, if the number of the rank of X is less than that of Y, then X is said to be below Y, and Y is said to be above X. Also, if the number of the file of X is less than that of Y, then
X is said to be to the left of Y, and Y is said to be to the right of X.

46. Which of the following is true regarding m and n?

      (1)  m = 2n              (2)  n = 2m              (3)   m = -n              (4)   m = n                (5)  m = -2n

47. The initial and final positions are the same for

(1)  A                     (2)  B                      (3)  C                      (4)  D                     (5)  E

48. What is the value of m + n + r + s ?

(1)   - 2                    (2)  0                      (3)  +2                    (4)  -4                    (5)  +4

49. Which of the following statements is true regarding the initial positions of the pawns?

(1)  C is below B but above E.   

(2)  B is below D but above E.

(3)  C is to the left of D but to the right of E.

(4)  E is to the left of A.

(5)  None of the above.

50. Which of the following statements is definitely false regarding the position of the pawns, at any point of time?

(1)  B is to the left of A.

(2)  D is above E.

(3)  B and D came into the same rank after P's move.

(4)  C is below E.

(5)  None of the above.

SECTION - III

Number of Questions = 25

DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 58: Answer the questions independently of each other.

51. Given a series 1, 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37,��, what is the sum of the first 50 terms of the series?

(1)  40475               (2)  43375               (3)  45575               (4)  42375               (5)  43525

52. If x > 1, find the minimum value of 17 log₃₀x - 3log_x 5 + 20log_x 10 - 3log_x 6 + 20log_x 3.

(1)  8                      (2)  34                     (3)  18                     (4)  24                     (5)  14

53. A box contains 2 red balls, 8 green balls and 10 blue balls. Find the minimum number of balls to be drawn from the box to ensure that at least four balls of the same colour are obtained.

(1)  7                      (2)  10                     (3)  8                      (4)  11                     (5)  9

54. In a number system, the product of 53 and 22 is equal to 1,276. The number 4,221 of this system when converted to the decimal system will be

(1)  1,483                (2)  341                   (3)  4,221                (4)  3,097                (5)  3,401

55. In a fruit mall, a certain stall sells only Apples, Pears, Kiwis and Peaches. When I asked the fruit vendor about their costs, I was told that any fruit in the stall costs Rs.25. Then, I asked him to give me a basket of fruits worth Rs.500, with at least two fruits of each variety. Assuming that there is not additional charge for the basket, how many different combinations of fruits can the basket contain?

(1)   ¹⁷ C₃                   (2)   ¹⁹ C₃                   (3)   ¹⁵ C₃                   (4)   ¹¹ C₃                   (5)   ¹² ₃ C

56.

In the figure above, ABCD is a square and the small shaded rectangle at the corner measures
4 cm � 8 cm. The corner P of the rectangle is also a point on the circumference of the circle inscribed in ABCD. What is the radius of the circle?

      (1)  20 cm               (2)  12 cm               (3)  32 cm               (4)  36 cm               (5)  40 cm

57. A solid sphere is put in a cylindrical container. How many of the following percentage values could possibly represent the ratio of the volume of the cylinder not occupied by the sphere and the volume of the sphere?

(a)  33 ¹ /₃%        (b)  55 ¹ /₅%        (c)  20%           (d)  44 ¹ /₄%        (e)  50%

(1)  0                      (2)  4                      (3)  2                      (4)  1                      (5)  5

58. Given that - 2 � p � 2, - 4 � q � - 0� 25, - 4 � r � - 0� 25 and s = pq/r, then which of the following is necessarily true about the possible values that s can assume?

      (1)  0 � s � 16                                       (2)   - 16 � s � 16                                    (3)  16 � s � 36        (4)   - 32 � s � 32                                    (5)  None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 59 and 60: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Car C₁ starts at town T₁ at 5:00 a.m. and reaches town T₂ at 10:00 a.m. Car C₂ starts at town T₂ at
7:00 a.m. and reaches town T_1­ at 11:00 a.m.

59. If the distance between towns T₁ and T₂ is 320 km, what is the distance between the two cars
15 minutes after they meet each other?

      (1)  40 km                                             (2)  36 km                                             (3)  48 km        

(4)  42 km                                             (5)  Cannot be determined

60. If One hour after C₁ starts, another car C₃, whose speed is 25% more than that of C₁, starts from T₁ towards T₂, which of the following statements is/are true?

      I.    Cars C₁ and C₃ reach T₂ at the same time.

      II.   C ₃ meets C₂ 20 minutes after C₁ meets C₂.

      III.When C₃ meets C₂, C₂ has to still travel for 1 hour 30 minutes to reach T₁.

      (1)  Only I and II                                   (2)  Only II and III

      (3)  Only I and III                                  (4)  Only III

      (5)  Only I

DIRECTIONS for questions 61 to 64: Answer the questions independently of each other.

61. Five men, four women and three boys together complete a piece of work in 24 days. If three men, five women and four boys complete the same work in 40 days, in how many days will a man working along with six women and five boys complete the work?

(1)  80                                                   (2)  96                                                   (3)  108

(4)  120                                                 (5)  Cannot be determined

62. There are ten partners, six male partners and four female partners, in a company. Each male partner has an equal share of investment and each female partner has exactly thrice the share of investment as that of any of the male partners. At the end of every financial year, each female partner first gets 10% interest for her share of investment and the remaining profit is then divided among all the ten partners, in the ratio of their respective investments. If last year, the company made a 35% profit on the sales, what is the ratio of the net share of profit of any of the female partners to that of any of the male partners?

      (1)  10 : 33                                            (2)  11 : 32                                            (3)  1 : 3

      (4)  10 : 31                                            (5)  Cannot be determined

63. There are two lighted candles whose rates of burning are in the ratio of 2 : 1. At 6:00 p.m., their lengths are in the ratio of 3 : 2 and at 9:00 p.m., their lengths are in the ratio of 2 : 3. At what time were their lengths equal?

(1)  7:30 p.m.                                         (2)  8:00 p.m.                                         (3)  8:24 p.m.

(4)  8:36 p.m.                                         (5)  Cannot be determined

64. Mr. Dev has taken an exam in which there are three-mark questions, two-mark questions and one-mark questions. The number of three-mark, two-mark and one-mark questions are in the ratio
5 : 6 : 10 respectively and the total number of marks of all the questions in the exam is 185.
If Mr. Dev answered two-thirds of the total number of questions, with exactly 30% of them being wrong, which of the following represents the sum of the minimum possible and the maximum possible marks Mr. Dev could have scored? Assume that for wrong answers there is a negative marking of one-third of the marks allocated to the respective questions.

(1)  144                   (2)  138                   (3)  136                   (4)  140                   (5)  142

DIRECTIONS for questions 65 and 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The reflection of the graph of a function f (x) with respect to a line l is obtained by treating the line as a mirror, being exactly half way between each point of f (x) and its reflection.

65. If the graph of f (x) = | x | is reflected with respect to the line x - 1 = 0, to obtain the graph of a new function g (x), then which of the following is true?

(1)  g (x) = | x + 2|                                 (2)   g (x) = |  x | - 2

(3)  g (x) = | x | + 2                                (4)   g (x + 2) =  | x |

(5)  None of these

66. If g (x) = | x | - 2, then how many of the following sets of operations, when performed independently, result in the graph of the function g (x)?

I .    The graph of |x | is reflected with respect to the line y - 2 = 0 and then this reflection is reflected with respect to the line y - 1 = 0.

I I.   The graph of |x | is reflected with respect to the line x - 3 = 0 and then this reflection is reflected with respect to the line x + 2 = 0.

III .The graph of |x | is reflected with respect to the line y + 2 = 0 and then this reflection is reflected with respect to the line y + 1 = 0.

I V.The graph of |x | is reflected with respect to the line y + 1 = 0 and then this reflection is reflected with respect to the line y + 2 = 0.

(1)  0                      (2)  1                      (3)  4                      (4)  3                      (5)  2

DIRECTIONS for questions 67 to 73: Answer the questions independently of each other.

67. If the digit 5 is appended to the left of a natural number N, it becomes equal to N_L and if the digit 5 is appended to the right of a natural number N, it becomes equal to N_R . If N is a three-digit natural number, for how many values of N is N_L < N_R ?

(1)  443                   (2)  444                   (3)  554                   (4)  445                   (5)  555

68. In a 200 m long race, A starts four seconds after B starts, while C starts at the same time as B but from a point which is 20 m behind the starting line. If all three of them finish the race together, which of the following is always true?

(1)  In a 100 m race, A beats C by 1 m.  (2)  In a 100 m race, C beats A by 1 m.

      (3)  A and C have the same speed.         (4)  C is exactly 20% faster than B.

(5)  None of these

69. What is the area (in sq.cm) of a square whose vertices lie on the sides of an equilateral triangle of side 1 cm?

(1)  4 -                (2)  7 -                   (3)  21 -                  (4)  21 -                (5)  None of these

70. If a, b and c are positive numbers satisfying a ² + b ² + c ² = 12, then which of the following is true of the sum S = a + b + c?

(1)  S is at least 6                                   (2)  S is at most 6

(3)  S is at least 12                                 (4)  S is at most 12

(5)  None of these

71. Qureshi bought four identical packets of chocolates and distributed all the chocolates among his daughters. It is known that each daughter got exactly one chocolate less than the total number of daughters Qureshi has. If each packet of chocolates that Qureshi bought contained at least 45 chocolates, find the minimum number of daughters that Qureshi has.

(1)  16                     (2)  14                     (3)  13                     (4)  12                     (5)  15

72. There are a certain number of points lying in a plane. If out of these points, exactly 6 are on a straight line and a total of 52 distinct straight lines can be drawn in all, connecting any two points at a time, what is the total number of points in the plane?

(1)  8                      (2)  12                     (3)  7                      (4)  11                     (5)  9

73. In the co-ordinate plane, how many non-overlapping unit squares are enclosed in the triangle formed by the straight line x + 2y = 12 and the two coordinate axes?

(1)  36                     (2)  33                     (3)  32                     (4)  30                     (5)  28

DIRECTIONS for questions 74 and 75: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A five-digit number abcde is such that it is a divisible by 6 and a < b < c < d < e.

74. If e < 8, then how many such five-digit numbers are possible?

(1)  1                      (2)  2                      (3)  4                      (4)  12                     (5)  16

75. How many such five-digit numbers are possible in all?